Is Marfan syndrome complete dominant or incomplete dominant?
Answers:
First of all, I have to admit I am not the brightest crayon surrounded by the box. But I would have to say complete dominant. A person any has it or they don't. There are no "carriers". I am a 3rd generation Marfan, my grandfather was a spontaneous mutation. He died at age 34 from an aneurysm. My mother passed at 46 after multiple surgeries to repair her aorta. I am 55 and own had multiple surgeries, my sister is 46 and has also had multiple surgeries. My brother does not own marfans and neither do any of his children. Sis & I decided to remain childless so as not to pass this on.
Marfan is an inherited autosomal dominant disease near 100% penetrance (100% with the mutation have the disease), pleitrophy (different tissues effected), and variable expressivity (manifests differently contained by different people)...
which means that 100% people with one copy of the mutation manifest the disease to varying degree... sounds complete, but I am not comfortable with those terms.
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